Directions (1-5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Life is messy. If we want our best and brightest in the workforce, we need to accept that they have complex lives. We need to be flexible when it comes to the realities of balancing career and family.
Being flexible at work doesn’t just benefit people trying to balance their outside lives with work. An extensive body of research demonstrates the business benefits of flexible working. Yet despite this overwhelming evidence, access to flexible work and careers is not widespread. Flexible work is still regarded as an add-on, something we do for mothers for a few months when they are back from parental leave. But in the face of rapid changes to the way we work, organizations need to move beyond just having policies for flexible working or making ad-hoc adjustments for certain individuals. Companies need to fundamentally rethink the way they design work and jobs.
The World Economic Forum predicts that we are on the cusp of a fourth industrial revolution. Technological, socioeconomic and demographic shifts are transforming the way we work, demanding flexibility in the way individuals, teams and organizations work. We all have different things happening in our lives at different times. Not just caring for young kids, but other family members, community roles, study and volunteering. And all of these parts of our identities bring with them different skill sets. In today’s workforce, fewer people identify with the stereotype of the ideal worker – a full-time, fully committed employee without personal or family commitments that impact on availability.
There are a few factors driving the demand for increased flexibility. Globalization is one. The development of a 24/7 marketplace, and the rapid expansion of the services economy are also having a transformational effect on the workplace, requiring organizations to think creatively about how they can best organize jobs and work to respond to an increasingly diverse and demanding customer base. Similarly technology is driving – and enabling – greater flexibility. It is dramatically reshaping our workplaces, blurring the boundaries between work and home and diversifying where, when and how employees work. Advances in mobile, internet and cloud technologies, the rapid development of computing power, and the digital connection between multiple objects have all driven workplace innovations such as remote working, telecommuting, co-working spaces, video/teleconferencing, and virtual teams and collaboration.
So the future of work demands new approaches to work design – but have workplaces risen to the challenge? The evidence suggests we have yet to grasp this opportunity to be more innovative.
While some employers are making flexible work more available, there is still a high prevalence of bolted-on temporary arrangements. These arrangements are seen as the exception to the rule, with the full-time, “face-time”, long hours “ideal worker” still the model to which everyone is expected to adhere.
Q4. Which of the following were the steps taken by the UK Bakery with regards to the working time of their bakers?
(I) The UK Bakery came up with a flexible system of two to three baking shifts a day to maintain a steady supply of fresh bread.
(II) The Bakery team agreed to rotate their hours each week so no team member permanently worked a shift that did not suit.
(III) The bakery sales increased by more than 65% in the first year and employee satisfaction in the bakery has risen 10% since the change to 93%.
(a) Only (III)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
(e) All of these.
Q5. The most appropriate title of the passage is.
(a) Complex lives of the workforce
(b) Role of technology in increasing flexibility of workers
(c) The brightest workforce requires more flexible work
(d) How a UK Bakery increased their sales
(e) Importance of Globalization in increasing workforce
Directions (6): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Q6. Predict
(a) ignore
(b) forecast
(c) misunderstand
(d) recount
(e) narrate
Directions (7): Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Q7. Temporary
(a) substitute
(b) alternate
(c) expedient
(d) provisional
(e) permanent
Directions (8-15): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The alphabet corresponding to that part is your answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
Q8. The priest together with (A)/his followers were fatally injured (B)/in the accident which occurred last night (C)/near the unmanned railway crossing. (D)/No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q9. The young woman who is watching television in that room (A)/lived here for more than (B)/a year but she has never created (C)/any problem for us. (D)/No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q10. Each of the employees, (A)/whom the company has chosen to take part (B)/in the international seminar to be conducted (C)/in the City Hall, are up to the mark. (D)/ No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q11. Needless to say, (A)/no sooner were all these large and rather expensive operations finished (B)/when the main electricity was brought in (C)/and the turbine became obsolete. (D)/No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q12. Plastic bags less than 50 microns thick (A)/are banned, (B)/but neither the states nor the city corporations (C)/cares to enforce this rule. (D)/No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q13. Tribal angst over economic issues (A)/leading to the scapegoating of nontribal longtime residents (B)/reflects the continued failure (C)/to forge a more inclusive politics in Meghalaya. (D)/No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q14. The Prime Minister has great power of (A)/implementing some useful (B)/schemes but the ministers (C)/have even greatest ability to foil them. (D)/No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q15. The blunder mistake (A)/was the apparent failure of detectives (B)/to inform the Parole Board that the murderer (C)/had threatened to return to kill her. (D)/No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Directions (16-20): In each question below some sentences are given which are divided into five parts. The first part of the sentence (1) is correct and is given in bold followed by four parts named A, B, C and D. Rearrange the four parts of the sentence to make a coherent paragraph. The rearranged sequence of the parts will be your answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is then choose option (e).
Q16. Crashes in the early days (1)/ to be caused by technical faults, (A)/ of commercial jets tended (B)/ such as metal fatigue (C) /in the airframe or engines (D)
(a) DCAB
(b) ABCD
(c) BACD
(d) CABD
(e) No arrangement required
Q17. There have been a lot of (1)/ drivers not obeying (A)/ complaints recently about (B)/ in downtown Boston (C)/ the speed limits (D)/
(a) BADC
(b) ABCD
(c) BCAD
(d) CABD
(e) No arrangement required
Q18. Chinese officials say (1)/ dropped to a three-year (A)/ low because of (B)/ economic growth has (C)/ the world economy (D)
(a) BADC
(b) CABD
(c) BCAD
(d) CABD
(e) No arrangement required
Q19. I think it’s a shame that (1)/ some foreign language teachers(A)/ studied with a native speaker (B)/ college without ever having (C)/ were able to graduate from (D)
(a) BADC
(b) CABD
(c) BCAD
(d) ADCB
(e) No arrangement required
Q20. The Gita is a spiritual philosophy (1)/ addressed to all and we know that (A)/ there are all kinds of people, (B)/ each kind differing (C)/ quite significantly from the other (D)
(a) BADC
(b) CABD
(c) BCAD
(d) ADCB
(e) No arrangement required
Directions (21-25): Given below are sentences consisting a blank in each. Identify the most suitable alternative among the five given that fits into the blank to make the sentence logical and meaningful.
Q21. In the same amount of time it would take me to correct all the ________________ in your report, I could write a better report myself.
(a) mistakes
(b) problems
(c) accuracies
(d) obstacles
(e) disputes
Q22. I have recently used the services of his ________________ agency to book a cruise in the Mediterranean.
(a) progress
(b) deportation
(c) travel
(d) transfer
(e) mover
Q23. They would like local authorities to be given greater ________________ as to how the money is spent.
(a) affairs
(b) function
(c) omission
(d) discretion
(e) statement
Q24. In a 10-billion-year-old galaxy there should have been ample ________________ for at least one species to escape its own mess, and to spread across the stars, filling every niche.
(a) negligence
(b) opportunity
(c) surveillance
(d) supply
(e) advocacy
Q25. A true ________________ of the resources involved in sport would include the unpaid labour services.
(a) growth
(b) consideration
(c) guidance
(d) suggestion
(e) estimation
Directions (26-30): In the question given below, there is a sentence in which one part is given in bold. The part given in bold may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the best alternative among the four given which can replace the part in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the part given in bold is already correct and does not require any replacement, choose option (e), i.e. “No replacement required” as your answer.
Q26. Despite of being most efficient method ever, it is still highly inefficient, and this inefficiency inspires hope.
(a) Despite being the mostly efficient
(b) Despite of being a most efficient
(c) Despite of being the most efficient
(d) Despite being the most efficient
(e) no replacement required
Q27. A satisfactorily number of contestant must register for the contest in order for it to take place.
(a) satisfactory number of contestants
(b) satisfaction of number of contestants
(c) satisfaction in the number of contestants
(d) satisfactory number of contestant
(e) no replacement required
Q28. The next class of wave or oscillation detector is the magnetic detector depending in the powers of electric oscillations to affect the magnetic state of iron.
(a) depend on the power in
(b) depending upon the power of
(c) depends upon the power in
(d) deepening upon the power of
(e) no replacement required
Q29. James had teaching at the university for more than a year before he left for Asia.
(a) was taught
(b) had been taught
(c) had been teaching
(d) has been teaching
(e) no replacement required
Q30. His tail was short and scraggly, and his harness had been broken in many places and fastened together again with cords and bits of wire.
(a) was broke from
(b) has broke from
(c) have been broken in
(d) have been breaking on
(e) no replacement required
S1. Ans (c)
Sol. Refer to the first paragraph of the passage where it is clearly mentioned, “Yet despite this overwhelming evidence, access to flexible work and careers is not widespread. Flexible work is still regarded as an add-on, something we do for mothers for a few months when they are back from parental leave.” Hence, option (c) will be the correct answer.
S2. Ans (e)
Sol. Refer to the second paragraph of the passage where it is mentioned, “In today’s workforce, fewer people identify with the stereotype of the ideal worker – a full-time, fully committed employee without personal or family commitments that impact on availability”. Hence, option (e) will be the correct answer.
S3. Ans (b)
Sol. Refer to the third paragraph of the passage where it is mentioned, “Similarly, technology is driving – and enabling – greater flexibility. It is dramatically reshaping our workplaces, blurring the boundaries between work and home and diversifying where, when and how employees work”. Hence, option (b) will be the correct answer.
S4. Ans (d)
Sol. Refer to the last paragraph of the passage where it is mentioned, “For example, a UK bakery sat down with their bakers and came up with a flexible system of two to three baking shifts a day to maintain a steady supply of fresh bread. The team agreed to rotate their hours each week so no team member permanently worked a shift that did not suit. After the change was made, bakery sales increased by more than 65% in the first year and employee satisfaction in the bakery has risen 10% since the change to 93%.” Option (III) will not be the answer because it was the result of the steps taken by the bakery, not the step itself. Hence, option (d) will be the correct answer.
S5. Ans (c)
Sol. Option (c), i.e. “The brightest workforce requires more flexible work” is the most appropriate title of the passage.
S6. Ans (b)
Sol. Predict means say or estimate that (a specified thing) will happen in the future or will be a consequence of something. Forecast has the same meaning as predict. Hence, option (b) will be the correct answer.
Recount means tell someone about something; give an account of an event or experience.
Narrate means give a spoken or written account of. 3
S7. Ans (e)
Sol. Temporary means lasting for only a limited period of time; not permanent. Permanent has the most opposite meaning to temporary. Hence, option (e) will be the correct answer.
Expedient means (of an action) convenient and practical although possibly improper or immoral
Provisional means arranged or existing for the present, possibly to be changed later.
S8. Ans (b)
Sol. In the second part of the sentence, the word “were” will be replaced by the word “was” because when two subjects are combined with ‘together with’, the main subject is the one which is written before together with, and the verb follows the main subject. All other parts of the sentence are correct. Hence, option (b) will be the correct answer.
S9. Ans (b)
Sol. In the second part of the sentence, the word “lived” will be replaced by “has lived” or “has been living” because “is watching” used in first part of the sentence and “has never created” used in the third part of the sentence signify that the sentence is in present tense. Hence, option (b) will be the correct answer.
S10. Ans (d)
Sol. In the fourth part of the sentence, “are” should be replaced by “is” because the subject of the statement starts with “Each of” and such sentences always follow singular Verb. Hence, option (d) will be the correct answer.
S11. Ans (c)
Sol. In the third part of the sentence, “when” will be replaced by “than” because ‘No sooner’ is always followed by ‘than’ and ‘Hardly/Scarcely’ is followed by ‘when/before’. Hence, option (c) will be the correct answer.
S12. Ans (d)
Sol. In the fourth part of the sentence, “cares” should be replaced by “care” because if two subjects are combined using ‘Either…or’ or ‘Neither…nor’ then the verb always follows the subject near to it, which in this case is ‘the city corporations’. So the verb will be plural. Hence, option (d) will be the correct answer.
S13. Ans (e)
Sol. All the parts of the given sentence are grammatically correct. Hence, option (e) will be the correct answer.
S14. Ans (d)
Sol. In the fourth part of the sentence, “greatest” should be replaced by “greater” because here we are comparing between two types of people, ‘Prime Minister’ and ‘Ministers’, and when we compare two types of people or things in Comparative Degree then the adjective used should also be of Comparative Degree. Hence, option (d) will be the correct answer. 4 \
S15. Ans (a)
Sol. The error lies in the first part of the sentence where the usage of the words ‘blunder’ and ‘mistake’ together is superfluous as ‘blunder’ itself means ‘a stupid or careless mistake’. Hence, option (a) will be the correct answer.
S16. Ans. (c)
Ans. The correct sequence of the other parts to form a grammatically correct and contextually meaningful sentence is BACD. Hence, option (c) is the most suitable answer choice.
S17. Ans. (a)
Sol. The correct sequence of the other parts to form a grammatically correct and contextually meaningful sentence is BADC. Hence, option (a) is the most suitable answer choice.
S18. Ans. (b)
Sol. The correct sequence of the other parts to form a grammatically correct and contextually meaningful sentence is CABD. Hence, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.
S19. Ans. (d)
Sol. The correct sequence of the other parts to form a grammatically correct and contextually meaningful sentence is ADCB. Hence, option (d) is the most suitable answer choice.
S20. Ans. (e)
Sol. The given parts of the sentence are in their precise position forming a coherent sentence. Since, they do not require any rearrangement option (e) becomes the most suitable answer choice.
S21. Ans. (a)
Sol. The most appropriate word that would fill the blank is ‘mistakes’ which means an act or judgement that is misguided or wrong. All the other words do not fill the blank appropriately, hence option (a) is the most suitable answer choice.
Accuracies means the quality or state of being correct or precise.
Obstacles means a thing that blocks one’s way or prevents or hinders progress.
Disputes means a disagreement or argument.
S22. Ans. (c)
Sol. The most appropriate word that would fill the blank is ‘travel’ which means journeys, especially abroad. All the other words do not fill the blank appropriately, hence option (c) is the most suitable answer choice.
Deportation means the action of deporting a foreigner from a country.
Transfer means move from one place to another. 5
S23. Ans. (d)
Sol. The most appropriate word that would fill the blank is ‘discretion’ which means the freedom to decide what should be done in a particular situation. All the other words do not fill the blank appropriately, hence option (d) is the most suitable answer choice.
Omission means someone or something that has been left out or excluded.
Affairs means an event or sequence of events of a specified kind or that has previously been referred to.
S24. Ans. (b)
Sol. The most appropriate word that would fill the blank is ‘opportunity’ which means a time or set of circumstances that makes it possible to do something. All the other words do not fill the blank appropriately, hence option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.
Negligence means failure to take proper care over something.
Surveillance means close observation, especially of a suspected spy or criminal.
S25. Ans. (e)
Sol. The most appropriate word that would fill the blank is ‘estimation’ which means a judgement of the worth or character of someone or something. All the other words do not fill the blank appropriately, hence option (e) is the most suitable answer choice.
Consideration means careful thought, typically over a period of time.
Suggestion means an idea or plan put forward for consideration.
Guidance means advice or information aimed at resolving a problem or difficulty, especially as given by someone in authority.
S26. Ans. (d)
Sol. The most appropriate phrase to replace the phrase given in bold is “despite being the most efficient”. It is to be noted that “despite” does not take any preposition with it. It is always followed with a noun, pronoun or a gerund. Moreover, when we use a superlative adjective (most) before the noun, we generally use it with ‘the’. This is because there’s only one (or one group) of the things we are talking about. Since option (d) is in the precise grammatical syntax, it becomes the most suitable answer choice.
S27. Ans. (a)
Sol. The most appropriate phrase to replace the incorrect bold phrase in the sentence is “satisfactory number of contestants”. It is to be noted that ‘satisfactory’ is an adjective which means ‘fulfilling expectations or needs; acceptable, though not outstanding or perfect’ while ‘satisfactorily’ is an adverb. Moreover, ‘number of’ reflects the plural nature of the noun, hence “contestant” should be replaced by “contestants”. Therefore, option (a) becomes the most suitable answer choice.
S28. Ans. (b)
Sol. The most suitable phrase that should replace the phrase given in bold is “depending upon the power of”. Except for option (b) none other options are in absolute grammatical syntax. Hence, it becomes the most viable answer choice.
S29. Ans. (c)
Sol. The most appropriate phrase to replace the given phrase in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct is “had been teaching”. It is to be noted past perfect continuous tense is used for ongoing continuous events over a period of time before another action or event in the past. These must be continuous verbs, and cannot be actions that are still happening in the present. Hence, considering the given rationale option (c) becomes the most suitable answer choice.
S30. Ans. (e)
Sol. The given phrase in bold is accurate and does not require any corrections or replacement. Hence, option (e) becomes the most suitable answer choice.